Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps Demo Questions
Here you can find Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps exam sample questions which will help you to prepare for your upcoming certification test. These questions will give you an idea of what to expect on the exam and help you review the 200-201 CBROPS study material. Be sure to go over the Free 200-201 CBROPS questions multiple times so that you are confident and comfortable with the material. You can always go to the full 200-201 CBROPS dumps here.
These Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps certification questions are designed to give you a feel for the material you'll be tested on. They cover a wide range of topics, so you can get a sense of what to expect on examination day.
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These Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps questions cover the material that will be on the test, and provide an opportunity for students to practice their skills. The questions are designed to be similar to those that will be on the actual Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps exam, so that students can get a feel for what they will be facing. We believe that by providing these demo questions, students will be better prepared and more likely to succeed on their exams.
Good luck for the 200-201 CBROPS exam!
Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps Sample Questions:
1. An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurred on the network. What is the impact of this traffic?
A. ransomware communicating after infection
B. users downloading copyrighted content
C. data exfiltration
D. user circumvention of the firewall
2. What is the function of a command and control server?
A. It enumerates open ports on a network device
B. It drops secondary payload into malware
C. It is used to regain control of the network after a compromise
D. It sends instruction to a compromised system
3. Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?
A. sandbox
B. application allow list
C. application block list
D. host-based firewall
4. How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?
A. An attack vector recognizes the potential outcomes of an attack, and the attack surface is choosing a method of an attack.
B. An attack surface identifies vulnerable parts for an attack, and an attack vector specifies which attacks are feasible to those parts.
C. An attack surface mitigates external vulnerabilities, and an attack vector identifies mitigation techniques and possible workarounds.
D. An attack vector matches components that can be exploited, and an attack surface classifies the potential path for exploitation
5. An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?
A. The computer has a HIPS installed on it.
B. The computer has a NIPS installed on it.
C. The computer has a HIDS installed on it.
D. The computer has a NIDS installed on it.
6. A user received a targeted spear-phishing email and identified it as suspicious before opening the content. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does to this type of event belong?
A. weaponization
B. delivery
C. exploitation
D. reconnaissance
7. What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?
A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.
B. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence.
C. Tampered images are used as evidence.
D. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.
8. What is the difference between an attack vector and attack surface?
A. An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.
B. An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.
C. An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack; and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.
D. An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack; and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.
9. Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data availability
B. data normalization
C. data signature
D. data protection
10. At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?
A. internet
B. transport
C. application
D. datalink