Oracle 1Z0-1079-24 Exam - Free questions
Certification Provider:
Oracle
Exam Name:
Oracle Fusion Transportation and Global Trade Management Cloud 2024 Implementation Professional
Exam Version:
1Z0-1079-24
1Z0-1079-24 Free questions
Here you can find Oracle Fusion Transportation and Global Trade Management Cloud 2024 Implementation Professional exam free sample questions which will help you to prepare for your upcoming certification test. These questions will give you an idea of what to expect on the exam and help you review the 1Z0-1079-24 study material.
These 1Z0-1079-24 questions are updated regularly, so you can be confident that you're studying with the most up-to-date information available. We also provide answer keys so that students can check their work.
Additionally, going through Oracle Fusion Transportation and Global Trade Management Cloud 2024 Implementation Professional practice questions can help you identify any areas where you need more review. Taking advantage of our 1Z0-1079-24 demo questions is a great way to set yourself up for success on the real thing.
Question No. 1) If you have just installed OTM, which domain would not be created by default?
A) MASTER
B) SERVPROV
C) GUEST
D) BLUEPRINT
E) STAGE
Question No. 2) Which output option from the below is available for exporting data using the CSV Export function?
A) browser window
B) a file on your database server
C) MS Excel
D) text editor programs such as Notepad
Question No. 3) You’ve executed a CSV upload in which you have modified some existing records, and created some new records. There were no errors during the upload. However, OTM is still retrieving only the old data, not the new data that was just uploaded. Select the action that you can take to address this.
A) You must reboot the database server in order to commit the changes.
B) Rerun the upload, this time making sure that you specify the “dd” command.
C) You should clear the OTM cache.
D) Rerun the upload, this time making sure that you specify the “ii” command.
E) Rerun the upload, this time making sure that you specify the “uu” command.
Question No. 4) Which four of the following components make up a Compliance Rule in Global Trade Management (GTM)? (Choose four.)
A) Regime
B) Control Type
C) Region
D) Control Code
E) Commerce Control List
Question No. 5) When a new Service Provider is created, OTM automatically does which of the following?
A) OTM assigns the default Calendar defined in the Parameter Set.
B) OTM associates the Service Provider calendar with the calendar of the CORPORATION ID identified during setup.
C) OTM sends an email or fax to the Service Provider contact, depending on the contact's preferred contact method.
D) OTM creates a corresponding LOCATION, with the location Role of “CARRIER”.
Question No. 6) Which three options are supported in Oracle Global Trade Management (GTM) when creating a Declaration?(Choose three.)
A) One Trade Transaction to many Declarations
B) One Order Release to one Declaration
C) One Trade Transaction to one Declaration
D) Many Trade Transactions to one Declaration
E) One Order Release to many Declarations
Question No. 7) What is the difference between a BUY Shipment and a SELL Shipment?
A) BUY Shipments are tendered to third party carriers, and SELL Shipments are tendered to a company's private Fleet.
B) BUY Shipments are created by Planners in a Company domain for their own shipments, and SELL Shipments are created by Planners in a 3PL COMPANY domain for their clients' shipments.
C) BUY Shipments are created for inbound (vendor Purchase Orders) shipments, and SELL Shipments are created for outbound (company Sales Orders) shipments.
D) BUY Shipments are created when you wish to purchase services, and SELL Shipments are created when you wish to charge a customer for services.
Question No. 8) Which two statements are true about authority configuration in Global Trade Management (GTM)? (Choose two.)
A) Authority configuration involves defining the Authority ID, Name, and Description.
B) There can be only one authority defined for a domain in GTM.
C) An authority has tube defined in the PUBLIC domain.
D) Authorities are regulatory agencies, such as the US Bureau of Industry and Security.
E) An authority has to be linked to a region by using region configuration.
Question No. 9) In the process of “Adjust shipment cost scenario,” you select “reversing and adjusting "Shipment cost. What will be performed by OTM?
A) The system creates a new cost that negates the original cost. Then it creates another new cost with the new cost value.
B) The system reverses a cost by creating a new cost with a negative amount that matches the amount of the original cost.
C) The system gives the user an option to update the amount.
D) The system takes the original cost and adds or subtracts an amount to it to create the new cost.
Question No. 10) Your client company has a few systems keeping the Item Master, and requests Global Trade Management (GTM) be flexible on Item creation. Which three options are true about Item creation in GTM in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A) Items can be sent from an ERP system, such as Oracle ERP Cloud, to GTM.
B) Items can be manually created in the GTM UI.
C) Items can be uploaded by CSV in GTM.
D) Items can be uploaded by the Product Classification Template in GTM.
E) Items can be downloaded from the External Content Provider.
Question No. 11) If a Rate Record and a Rate Offering are configured with conflicting values in the same data elements, how does OTM address this?
A) OTM's planning engine will run the solver for both settings, but only consider the least cost result.
B) The Rate Record will take priority over the Rate Offering configuration.
C) During planning, the user will have the option of indicating if OTM should prioritize either the Rate Offering or the Rate Record setting.
D) The Rate Offering will take priority over the Rate Record configuration.
E) Such a conflict cannot exist in OTM.
Question No. 12) When defining a Region, there is a parameter called "Representative Location". When is it appropriate to set a value for "Representative Location"?
A) Do it if you are using Cooperative Routing and you want the location to be considered in the cooperative routing aggregation.
B) Use this parameter to define a range of values that will be included in the region you are defining, such as a range of zip codes.
C) Do it when you want to create a template Region that you can use to quickly create other regions in the future.
D) Representative Location is the location of the person assigned to the LOGISTICS Role for the region.
Question No. 13) When assigning rules to service providers to support Freight Payment, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A) One can assign a match rule profile and an approval rule profile to a service provider.
B) Each service provider can have only one match rule profile assigned.
C) The Autopay check box should be selected for the rules to apply.
D) The rules cannot be changed once assigned to a service provider.
Question No. 14) Identify the object in which Saved query cannot be used.
A) Finders (Search pages)
B) Automation Agents
C) Business Monitors
D) Reports
Question No. 15) Which three statements are true when configuring allocation rules for OTM Freight Payment? (Choose three.)
A) For a service provider, one can assign one allocation rule based on the planned cost and another based on the actual cost.
B) OTM uses the first allocation rule that applies.
C) The allocation rules in the profile can be sequenced in the allocation rule profile.
D) One cannot use the same rule in more than one allocation rule profile.
E) Allocation rules need to be set up before the allocation rule profiles.
Question No. 16) You are writing an order release agent and need to listen for an order modification event triggered by an integration update to the order release. What is the impact to the agent process if you set the “before persist” flag on the ORDER – MODIFIED event?
A) OTM will perform the agent actions but will not persist any changes to the object.
B) OTM stages the new data, will perform the agent actions, will not allow you to use certain actions.
C) OTM will not persist the new data but will perform the agent actions as long as they do not require persisting the new data.
D) OTM stages the new data but will not perform the agent actions if the data is not persisted properly.
E) OTM will persist the new data immediately after the agent is triggered and then perform the agent actions.
Question No. 17) Which option represents Original Invoice Cost field at Shipment?
A) Contains the initial invoice amount adjusted by any additional charges or invoices that the carrier later sent to you
B) Total Approved Cost on a sell Shipment
C) The Initial invoice amount received from the carrier
D) Total Actual Cost minus the rebate amount as defined in the Secondary Charge Rules
Question No. 18) By default, OTM installs some agents at the time of installation. Identify two correct statements. (Choose two.)
A) By default, some agents are active, while others are inactive. The Administrator or other authorized persons must review the agents and activate or deactivate appropriately.
B) All agents are inactive. The Administrator or other authorized persons must review and activate those they want to run in their environment.
C) OTM will install agents into the designated “company” domain, but not into domains such as PUBLIC and SERVPROV.
D) All agents are active. The Administrator or other authorized persons must review and deactivate those they want to run in their environment.
E) OTM will install agents into domains such as PUBLIC and SERVPROV.
Question No. 19) Which three statements are true when setting up Match Rules for Freight Payment in OTM? (Choose three.)
A) You need to specify at least one shipment reference number qualifier to match to.
B) The match rule will apply to all invoices, unless only certain service providers are specified on the match rule.
C) The matching rule could be different for different service providers.
D) You could specify several shipment reference values to match to.
E) BM or Bill Of Lading is a mandatory shipment reference number qualifier to match to.
Question No. 20) Which two statements about shipment statuses are true? (Choose two.)
A) ENROUTE_DELAYED - indicates that the shipment was unable to travel on the planned route, and has taken a detour.
B) ENROUTE_NOT STARTED - indicates that the shipment has not been picked up from the initial pickup stop yet.
C) ENROUTE_ENROUTE - indicates that the shipment is moving from one location to another.
D) ENROUTE_UNLOADED PARTIAL - indicates that the shipment has reached the final destination and is in the process of being unloaded.
E) ENROUTE_DIVERTED - indicates that the shipment was delayed in leaving the previous location due to the late pickup time, and will be late arriving to the destination location.
Question No. 21) In which two of the following cases is it useful to use the “Show Routing Options” shipment planning method? (Choose two.)
A) when you want to view OTM’s recommendation without actually planning the shipment
B) when you want to override the delivery constraints on the Order Base
C) when you want to auto-tender the shipment after planning is complete
D) when you want to specify the carrier that you want to receive the shipment tender
E) when you want to specify the itinerary that you want to use for the shipment
Question No. 22) Which are the two ways in which Milestones differ from Agents? (Choose two.)
A) Milestones may be made up of one or more Agents.
B) Milestones monitor for a condition to occur, whereas Agents only start and stop based on a time-based schedule.
C) Milestones may be both "reactive"(for example, they monitor for a condition to occur) and "proactive" (for example, they can initiate before, at, or a prescribed number of times after a condition occurs).
D) Agents monitor for a condition to occur, whereas Monitors only start and stop based on a time-based schedule.
E) Agents may be made up of one or more Milestones.
Question No. 23) What must you do in order to export data from the CONTACT table, so that the data only includes contacts with email addresses ending with “@oracle.com”?
A) The CSV utility is useful for managing large amounts of data, but it is not capable of filtering data during the export process.
B) Export the data first, and then use software such as MS Excel, MS Access, or direct SQL to filter the data.
C) Use the “Where” clause on the CSV Export screen to specify the “@oracle.com” qualifier.
D) Create a CSVUTIL file that specifies the “@oracle.com” qualifier.
Question No. 24) View the exhibit.
A) Do nothing, because Bob will automatically be authorized to plan all of the orders.
B) Create a Role in the 3PL COMPANY domain that has at least "Default" authority, and use OTM's GRANTS to assign Bob's user ID in each of the Client domains.
C) Use OTM's VPD to assign Bob's user ID in each of the Client domains.
D) Create a Role in each of the Client domains with the same name, and add Bob's user ID to the Role.
E) Use OTM's VPD to add Bob to the Planner Role in the 3PL COMPANY domain.
Question No. 25) Identify the option which cannot be performed by the Screen Set Manager.
A) Customize the Results page columns.
B) Customize the Actions menu.
C) Define default criteria for search fields.
D) Create multi-panel layouts containing tables, maps, Gantt charts.
Oracle 1Z0-1079-24 Exam answers